This is my reasoning on it.
Lets say the oil pump puts out 5 gallons a min max.
But worn bearings allow a 6 gallon per min flow.
I don't understand how a tighter spring is going to make the oil pressure compensate for a 6 gallon loss through the bearings if the oil pump can only do 5 gal a min anyway.
I always thought the spring was to relieve to high of a pressure and had zero effect at Idle RPM's unless cold oil was just to thick to pump through the bearings at 5 gallons per min.
See why it doesn't make sense to me?