Here you go, Piston area and force.

Dale Davies said
Piston area × PSI in the cyl = pounds force on the piston

Correct, which buddy doesn't get.

Dale Davies said
, which is almost directly transferred to the con rod.
Now in that, any one cyl block can only be poked so far. Also, is this question limited to boring,
or comparing the torque developed between two engines of equal displacement? Are the cylinders in question being supplied through the same size ports and valves, or larger valves that the larger piston allows before cyl wall shrouding?

Not necessarily talking overboring, generally like how mopar mainly changes displacement by bore.

But what this is really about say a 318 bored and stroked 390 and just overbore a 383 to 390, the general wisdom would be the 318/390 4" would produce more torque cause of the longer stroke ignoring the fact that the larger bore of the 383/390 can produce more force to the piston ideally allowing both these engines to produce the same torque.

Obviously engines are complex devices there lots of variables so it obviously depends on the combos of the different engines of same displacement engines were comparing. For this wrong there would have to be a good reason the larger bore would be generally down in cylinder pressure especially by the same ratio of difference as the difference in piston area, need a little more proof than a garden hose on a turd or a coin in playdough etc..

Just like any NA engines ability to be efficient eg.. Lbs/ft per cid, bmep, 1000-1900 psi however you want to measure it. Since engines of all sizes and bore and stroke is able to reach most of these efficiencies ($$$$$) there would have to be a good reason a larger bore with a shorter stroke couldn't especially when the highest efficient race engines generally use them.